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practice Set 02
PMP / CAPM Practice Exam
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Question 51: Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
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A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
Question 52: A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
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A. Benchmarking
B. Context diagrams
C. Brainstorming
D. Prototyping
Question 53: Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
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A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
Question 54: Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
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A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Question 55: Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
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A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikawa diagrams
D. Checksheets
Question 56: The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
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A. Collect Requirements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Question 57: Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
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A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
Question 58: The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
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A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Question 59: An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
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A. Business case
B. Activity list
C. Project management plan
D. Cost forecast
Question 60: Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
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A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Question 61: Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
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A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
Question 62: An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
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A. Nominal group technique
B. Majority
C. Affinity diagram
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis
Question 63. A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
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A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
Question: 64: An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
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A. A process improvement plan
B. Quality control measurements
C. Work performance information
D. The project management plan
Question 65: A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
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A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
Question 66: Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
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A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
67: Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
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A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
Question 68. Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
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A. Expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques
C. Earned value management
D. Group decision-making techniques
Question 69. The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
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A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
Question 70. When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
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A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Question 71: A reward can only be effective if it is:
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A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual
Question 72: Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
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A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Question 73: Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
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A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
Question 74: Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
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A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Question 75: Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
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A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
Question 76: Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
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A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Question 77: Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
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A. Organizational process assets and the project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars
Question 78: A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
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A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Question 79: Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
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A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
Question 80: Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
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A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Question 81: Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
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A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
Question 82: Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
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A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log
Question 83: The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
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A. Work packages
B. Accepted deliverables
C. The WBS dictionary
D. The scope baseline
Question 84: In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
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A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Question 85: The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
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A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
Question 86: Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
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A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Question 87: Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
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A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
Question 88: Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
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A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Question 89: When should quality planning be performed?
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A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
Question 90: A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
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A. The best use of communication methods
B. An efficient and effective communication flow
C. Project costs to be reduced
D. The best use of communication technology
Question 91: The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
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A. Human resource management plan
B. Activity resource requirements
C. Personnel assessment tools
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis
Question 92: The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
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A. Control Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Activities
D. Develop Schedule
Question 93: Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
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A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams
Question 94: The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
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A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Question 95: An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
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A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
Question 96: Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
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A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Question 97: An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
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A. Source selection criteria
B. Market research
C. A stakeholder register
D. A records management system
Question 98: Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
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A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
Question 99: Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
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A. Close Project or Phase
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Question 100: Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
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A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
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