CAPM 03

Question 101: A regression line is used to estimate: *

A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance. B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable. C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart. D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution

Question 102: An input to Conduct Procurements is: *

A. Independent estimates B. Selected sellers C. Seller proposals D. Resource calendars

Question 103: What are the Project Procurement Management processes? *

A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Question 104: Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan? *

A. Ground rules B. Expert judgment C. Team-building activities D. Interpersonal skills

Question 105: Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle? *

A. Only once, at the beginning B. At the beginning and the end C. Once during each phase D. Repeatedly

Question 106: The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by: *

A. A risk urgency assessment B. The scope baseline C. Work performance information D. Procurement audits

Question 107: Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them? *

A. Requirements documentation B. Requirements traceability matrix C. Project management plan updates D. Project documents updates

Question 108: Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the: *

A. Cost management plan B. Work performance information C. Quality management plan D. Work breakdown structure

Question 109: Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences? *

A. External B. Internal C. Mandatory D. Discretionary

Question 110: Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an: *

A. Decision tree diagram B. Tornado diagram C. Pareto diagram D. Ishikawa diagram

Question 111: The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that: *

A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan

Question 112: Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram? *

A. Matrix diagram B. Affinity diagram C. Tree diagram D. Activity network diagram

Question 113. A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique? *

A. Listening B. Facilitation C. Meeting management D. Presentation

Question: 114: When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary? *

A. Before the Define Activities process B. During the Define Activities process C. Before the Sequence Activities process D. During the Sequence Activities process

Question 115: Typical outcomes of a project include: *

A. Products, services, and improvements B. Products, programs, and services C. Improvements, portfolios, and services D. Improvements, processes, and products

Question 116: Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages? *

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS) B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) C. Project assignment chart D. Personnel assignment matrix

117: The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as: *

A. Continuous improvement B. Predictive planning C. Progressive elaboration D. Quality assurance

Question 118: An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is: *

A. smooth/accommodate B. force/direct C. collaborate/problem solve D. compromise/reconcile

Question 119: A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a: *

A. Project B. Plan C. Program D. Portfolio

Question 120: Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of: *

A. Earned value management B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Organizational process assets D. Work performance information

Question 121: Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance? *

A. Organizational process updates B. Quality metrics C. Change requests D. Quality control measurements

Question 122: A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor? *

A. Urgent information need B. Sensitivity of information C. Project environment D. Ease of use

Question 123: The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is: *

A. 10 B. 12 C. 20 D. 24

Question 124: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as: *

A. Plan Risk Management B. Plan Risk Responses C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 125: Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project? *

A. Facilitated workshops B. Interviews C. Inspection D. Meetings

Question 126: An input to Close Project or Phase is: *

A. Accepted deliverables B. Final products or services C. Document updates D. Work performance information

Question 127: An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is: *

A. Deliverables. B. Activity lists. C. A work breakdown structure. D. A scope statement.

Question 128: External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called: *

A. Customers B. Business partners C. Sellers D. Functional managers

Question 129: Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions? *

A. Develop Schedule B. Create WBS C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Define Scope

Question 130: In a project, total float measures the: *

A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project. B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date. C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule. D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Question 131: Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group? *

A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Question 132: Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project: *

A. Benefit B. Initiative C. Objective D. Process

Question 133: Which cost is associated with non-conformance? *

A. Liabilities B. Inspections C. Training D. Equipment

Question 134: Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle? *

A. Historical relationships B. Dependency determination C. Bottom-up estimating D. Rolling wave planning

Question 135: An output of the Create WBS process is: *

A. Scope baseline B. Change requests C. Accepted deliverables D. Variance analysis

Question 136: A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is: *

A. Expert judgment B. Performance reporting C. Bidder conferences D. Reserve analysis

Question 137: Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process? *

A. Perform Quality Assurance B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 138: Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process? *

A. Acquisition B. Earned value management C. Vendor bid analysis D. Forecasting

Question 139: Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams? *

A. Supportive B. Directive C. Controlling D. Instructive

Question 140: Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity? *

A. Project document updates B. Activity list C. Activity attributes D. Project calendars

Question 141: An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is: *

A. The project management plan B. The stakeholder register C. Procurement documents D. Stakeholder analysis

Question 142: Identify Risks is part of which Process Group? *

A. Planning B. Executing C. Closing D. Initiating

Question 143: Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict? *

A. Force/direct B. Withdraw/avoid C. Compromise/reconcile D. Collaborate/problem solve

Question 144: Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process? *

A. Decomposition B. Modeling techniques C. Resource optimization D. Meetings

Question 145: A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as: *

A. Start-to-start (SS) B. Start-to-finish (SF) C. Finish-to-start (FS) D. Finish-to-finish (FF)

Question 146: Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives? *

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF) D. Time and Material (T&M)

Question 147: What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25? *

A. $50 B. $100 C. $125 D. $175

Question 148: The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the: *

A. Project management plan B. Project charter C. Work breakdown structure D. Stakeholder register

Question 149: Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process? *

A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Question 150: In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to: *

A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders. B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders. C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement. D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

practice Set 03

PMP / CAPM Practice Exam