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PAGT PM Exam
practice Set 04
PMP / CAPM Practice Exam
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Question 151: The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
Question 152: Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables
B. Validated deliverables
C. Acceptance criteria
D. Activity resource requirements
Question 153: An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
B. Validated changes
C. The change log
D. The requirements traceability matrix
Question 154: During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget
Question 155: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:
A. Validate Scope
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Control Scope
D. Define Scope
Question 156: Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?
A. Resource calendar
B. Scope baseline
C. Trend analysis
D. Cost baseline
Question 157: The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:
A. Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle
B. Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants
C. Develop an appropriate approach for project communications
D. Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information
Question 158: Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:
A. Level of control
B. Communication channels
D. Strategic alignment
Question 159: At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?
Question 160: Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
Question 161: Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders
Question 162: Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?
D. Control charts
Question 163. The following are the calculated floats for 7 activities: A = 0, B =2, C = 0, D = 3, E = 0, F = 4, G = 0. What is the Total Float of the project?
Question: 164: If the Early Finish of activity D is 3, and the Early Start of activity E is 8, what is the Free Float of the successor activity?
Question 165: Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
Question 166: Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control
167: Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline
Question 168: While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning?
Question 169: A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
A. Plan Stakeholder Management
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement
Question 170: Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:
A. organizational skills
B. technical skills
C. communication skills
D. hard skills
Question 171: Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Reserve analysis and expert judgment
B. Facilitation techniques and meetings
C. Expert judgment and analytical techniques
D. Performance reviews and meetings
Question 172: When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
Question 173: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
Question 174: The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.
B. Occur at random times in the project plans.
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate
Question 175: Which tool decomposes the project deliverable into smaller work deliverables?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Context diagram
C. Control chart
D. Pareto diagram
Question 176: An example of a group decision-making technique is:
A. nominal group technique
C. affinity diagram
D. multi-criteria decision analysis
Question 177: Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
A. Procurement documents
B. Inspection and audits
C. Estimate budget
D. Risk register
Question 178: Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?
D. Trust building
Question 179: If a project team has 5 members, how many ways can information flow among team members?
Question 180: Which among the following will show the duration for which a deliverable must be completed?
A. Activity Duration Estimate Sheet.
B. Activity Details
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. WBS Dictionary
Question 181: The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
Question 182: Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:
Question 183: A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
A. Resource calendar.
B. Project organization chart.
C. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).
Question 184: Which item is a cost of conformance?
C. Lost business
Question 185: Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
C. Decision making
Question 186: Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process:
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Question 187: In project management, a temporary project can be?
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
Question 188: Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents
Question 189: Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
Question 190: Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action
Question 191: Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units:
Question 192: Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
D. Functional manager
Question 193: Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
Question 194: Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and?
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Question 195: Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board
Question 196: When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a?
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency
Question 197: Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
Question 198: What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20):
Question 199: A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as?
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
Question 200: The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:
PAGT PM Exam